A complete, clinically reviewed 120-question paper with detailed option analysis, “what if?” extensions and visible evidence passports.
Start the 135-minute timed mockOriginal educational questions with answer-by-answer reasoning and visible evidence and review passports.
A 49-year-old of Chinese family origin develops unilateral conductive hearing loss and a persistent middle-ear effusion without an upper-respiratory infection. What is the most appropriate referral?
An adult reports disproportionate difficulty understanding speech in noise. Pure-tone thresholds are mildly impaired, otoacoustic emissions are present, but auditory brainstem responses are absent and acoustic reflexes are abnormal. What diagnosis best explains this pattern?
An adult has bilateral severe-to-profound sensorineural deafness and derives inadequate benefit from appropriately fitted acoustic hearing aids after structured assessment. Which principle best guides the next step?
A patient has posterior-canal BPPV confirmed by a typical torsional up-beating Dix–Hallpike response. Symptoms persist after one correctly performed Epley manoeuvre. What is the best next action?
A 7-year-old has unilateral otitis media with effusion and confirmed hearing loss. School reports difficulty localising sound, but language development is normal. What is the most appropriate management principle?
A 58-year-old has a persistent unilateral middle-ear effusion after an upper-respiratory infection has resolved. There is no acute otalgia. What is the most appropriate next step?