Diagnostic and daily engine
Use all 360 reviewed SBAs to identify weaker domains and build a device-private “due today” queue.
Open adaptive revisionAn independent preparation hub for Section 1 SBA practice and Section 2 clinical, communication and oral rehearsal. It is not official JCIE material.
Start free Section 1 practiceUse all 360 reviewed SBAs to identify weaker domains and build a device-private “due today” queue.
Open adaptive revisionAttempt all 240 questions with two separate 135-minute timers and one combined report.
Start complete examinationAttempt 120 questions in 2 hours 15 minutes with answers hidden until submission.
Start timed Paper 1Attempt a second 120-question paper with full post-submission explanations.
Start timed Paper 2A further 135-minute rehearsal with a separate score report. This is not an official third examination paper.
Start Practice Form 1Eighty-seven clinically reviewed stations plus an interactive timed rehearsal mode.
Start timed Section 2 circuitEach advanced item explains the best answer, every distractor and a scenario-changing “what if?”.
A 42-year-old with a long-standing attic cholesteatoma develops disequilibrium when the ear is suctioned. CT shows erosion of the lateral semicircular canal, while hearing remains serviceable. There is no facial weakness or intracranial complication. What is the most appropriate management principle?
A 63-year-old with diabetes presents with severe otalgia, fever, a bulging tympanic membrane and a new complete lower-motor-neurone facial palsy. CT shows opacified mastoid air cells but no abscess. What is the best next management principle?
A 56-year-old has progressive left-sided hearing difficulty and tinnitus. Audiometry shows a 20 dB asymmetry at two adjacent frequencies; there is no facial weakness. Which investigation is most appropriate?
A 68-year-old with hypertension develops continuous vertigo, vomiting and inability to walk without support. Head-impulse testing is normal, direction-changing gaze-evoked nystagmus is present and there is skew deviation. What is the most appropriate action?
A 74-year-old taking apixaban has ongoing posterior epistaxis despite resuscitation, correction of reversible factors and correctly placed packing. They are now haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate definitive next step in a centre with expertise?
A neutropenic patient on chemotherapy develops rapidly progressive facial pain, ophthalmoplegia and a pale-to-black nasal turbinate. CT shows unilateral sinus opacification; there is no intracranial collection. What is the best next step?